One loan is 30 years fixed at 5% rate with monthly payment m$. The second loan is 5/1 ARM (first 5 year is fixed at 5% then it becomes adjustable). For the second loan, the borrower is told he can pay m$ monthly or pay n$ monthly so that he can pay it off in 5 years. Both loans do not have pre-payment panelty.
The question is if the borrower take the first loan and pay n$ each month, can he pay it off in 5 years?
If the answer is no, please explain why.
Mortgage Loans
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回複:Mortgage Loans
-Commentate-
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12/01/2009 postreply
11:50:33
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This question is not about wording tricks.
-yma16-
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12/01/2009 postreply
14:49:22
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回複:Mortgage Loans
-yma16-
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12/03/2009 postreply
15:49:02
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回複:回複:Mortgage Loans
-yma16-
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12/04/2009 postreply
10:43:49
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The loans officer was correct.
-commentate-
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12/04/2009 postreply
17:17:34
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Although it makes sense to use the
-yma16-
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12/04/2009 postreply
19:43:54
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回複:Mortgage Loans - YES!
-MovingTarget-
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12/07/2009 postreply
22:14:13
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don't need any math, just consider the cashflows and
-外-國人-
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12/13/2009 postreply
18:50:29
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Most people in the bank are math idiots.
-ProfessionalEngineer-
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12/10/2009 postreply
06:01:53