很好玩的題

m>n

f(m) - f(n) = 1/n sum_{1
f(2n) > f(n) since p(x+y)
This will prove 1

consider another case, n is a sufficiently large prime, m = p + 1
since in this p(m/k) = p(m/k) + p(1/k) when k
f(p+1)
this will prove 2

所有跟帖： 

• Interesting solution. Mine based on yours... :-) -亂彈- ♂ (249 bytes) () 01/16/2009 postreply 13:47:06