But she did get her out from deed as an unmarried woman since nobody knows report she was married. My brother went to county. They said they only notarize the signature but wouldnt verify the marriage status.
She agreed to pay half of the sell price in 2000. The questions are:
1. can the sell in 2000 be revoked since her family still own it?
2. If the sell wasn't valid, can the house be sold as current market price? There is $200k difference
3. Will court punish this kind of behavior ? or just restore what it is and no loss recovery?
