It depends

If your hu*****and bought the house before he married you, it would be deemed pre-marital property. If your name is not on the title you do not have the ownership of the house. If you have been married for a period of time and the value of the house has increased, the increased value would be martial asset for which you share ownership with your hu*****and even if your name is not on the title. You could ask your hu*****and to convey half interest to you and you and your hu*****and own the house as joint tenants. If you and your hu*****and purchased the house during the marriage, it would be deemed marital asset. In addition, in some states you and your hu*****and would be deemed to own the house as tenancy in entirety, which means one spouse cannot act alone to convey the title of the house. From the bank's perspective, although they have the mortgage on the house, they would like to drag more people in to guarantee the loan. They have the house as security and individual as guarantor and avoid the potensial risk. If you were the lender you would do the same.

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• Only true if ... -bigredfox- ♀ (399 bytes) () 09/18/2004 postreply 13:06:24

• 回複：It depends -addition12- ♀ (7 bytes) () 09/20/2004 postreply 15:13:32