My PM often have postdated lease signed with tenants (e.g. the lease starts on 9/1/14, the lease is signed on 9/3/14). I thought this was common practice until I read your reply.
However, your current reply also confuses me, "When he refused to sign your new lease, you could tell him he needs to move out in 30 days, or sign the new lease", does it mean a postdated lease is acceptable?
Thanks.
所有跟帖:
• New lease doesn't have to be post-date -lexm5- ♂ (1060 bytes) () 09/22/2014 postreply 12:44:06
• You are right. -sleepyfox- ♂ (516 bytes) () 09/22/2014 postreply 13:09:54